Bible Question: "Please explain 1 Timothy 3:16. Since divorce is not mentioned in that verse, does it eliminate a divorced man from serving as a deacon?"

Bible Answer: No matter how I answer this question, I am sure to offend one side or the other on this issue, because this is one of those verses which is interpreted differently among churches.

My personal opinion is this verse does not eliminate a man from being a deacon if he is divorced, but it's only my opinion.

Here's the verse in the New King James Version, which I usually use in this column: "Let deacons be the husbands of one wife, ruling their children and their own houses well." This is quite similar to the King James Version, which says "Let the deacons be the husbands of one wife, ruling their children and their own houses well."

The New International Version says "A deacon must be the husband of but one wife and must manage his children and his household well."

The New American Standard Bible says "Deacons must be husbands of only one wife, and good managers of their children and their own households."

The Amplified Bible says "Let deacons be the husbands of but one wife, and let them manage [their] children and their own households well."

As you can easily see, there's not much difference in how this verse is translated among the various versions of the Bible. I looked up 13 versions and found no significant differences.

The bone of contention is just what does "husband of one wife" mean? Some churches, mostly fundamentalist ones, say this means if you've been divorced, you cannot be a deacon.

Other churches which would describe themselves as conservative also allow deacons to be divorced and serve.

The problem with deciding exactly what "husband of one wife" means is there are few if any other verses to explain it.

In Titus 1:6, Paul writes about qualifications for elders, "An elder must be blameless, the husband of but one wife, a man whose children believe and are not open to the charge of being wild and disobedient," in the New International Version.

This wording is very similar to 1 Timothy 3:16.

So does "husband of but one wife" mean never divorced, or does it mean only married to one woman at a time? The custom of multiple wives was not uncommon in Paul's day, and though it was not illegal as it is today, it was frowned on in the church.

I really don't know for sure, and I can find no other verses in the Bible that give any additional light on 1 Timothy 3:16.

I must add a personal note. I was once a member of a church which believed the fundamentalist version, and because I was divorced, was not a deacon. I have been divorced and remarried and am now serving as a deacon in a conservative church.

This is one of those verses I have questioned personally, and have never been able to come to any definitive answer. But I believe that lack has not hindered me from serving as a deacon.

I suppose I shall wait and ask Jesus about it when I see Him. But I don't suppose this will matter at all on that day.

If any reader has any greater knowledge on this matter, other than just personal opinion, I would welcome their input.

Submit Bible questions by email to writeme@johnwmyers.com

(John Myers has been a Christian lay speaker, Sunday School adult teacher and newspaper Bible study columnist for more than 20 years.)